Class IX - Science - Sample Paper - 1

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Class IX

Time Allowed: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

General Instructions:

The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. there are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
Section A question no 1 – 20 – all questions and parts thereof are of one mark each.
Section B question no 21 – 26 are short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
Section C question no 27 – 34 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Section D question no 35 – 37 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each
There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section – A

1. How is the tincture of iodine made?

Ans. Tincture of iodine is made by dissolving iodine in alcohol.

Name the only liquid metal and the only liquid non-metal.

Ans. Mercury is the only liquid metal and bromine is the only liquid non-metal.

2. Which has highest inertia: solids made of aluminium, steel and wood of same shape and same volume.

Ans. Solid made of steel has the highest inertia because of its density, hence mass is greater than aluminium and wooden solids.

3. The ion of an element has 3 positive charges. Mass number of the atom is 27 and the number of neutrons is 14. What is the number of electrons in the ion?

A) 13

B) 10

C) 14

D) 16

Ans. B) 10

Atomic number = mass number – number of neutrons = 27 – 14 = 13 This is the atomic number of aluminium. Therefore, this element is aluminium (Al). Number of electrons in the Al atom = 13 Number of electrons in the Al3+ ion = 13 – 3 = 10.

Identify the Mg²⁺ ion from the figure where, n and p represent the number of neutrons and protons respectively.

Ans. Option (D)

Electronic configuration of Mg atom = 2, 8, 2 and that of Mg²⁺ ion = 2, 8 Number of protons in Mg atom = 2 + 8 + 2 = 12, Number of neutrons in Mg atom = 24 – 12 = 12 [as mass number of Mg atom = 24 and number of neutrons = mass number – number of protons].

4. What is an electron? Who discovered it?

Ans. Electron is a negatively charged particle present outside the nucleus of an atom. It was discovered by J. J. Thomson in 1897.

5. Name the materials of which the cell membrane and cell wall are composed of.

Ans. Cell wall is composed of cellulose and cell membrane is composed of lipids and proteins.

6. Write the chemical formula of calcium oxide.

Ans. CaO

In ammonia, nitrogen and hydrogen are always present in the ratio 14:3 by mass. State the law which explains the above statement.

Ans. The elements are always present in a definite proportion by mass in a pure chemical compound. This is known as ‘the law of definite proportion’

7. Name the organelle other than nucleus of a cell, which contains DNA.

Ans. Mitochondria

8. Why is lightning seen before the sound of thunder heard?

Ans. Speed of light is 3 × 10⁸ m/s while the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. Hence, thunder can be seen before it can be heard.

9. What is the main benefit of mixed cropping?

Ans. It reduces risk and gives some insurance against failure of one of the crops.

10. Identify the energy possessed by a rolling stone.

Ans. The energy possessed by a rolling stone is kinetic energy.

11. What is an α- particle?

Ans. Alpha particles are particles that consist of two protons and two neutrons bound together into a particle identical to a helium-4 nucleus

12. If the time interval between lightning and thunder is 2 seconds, what is the distance of the point of lightning. (Speed of sound in air is 346 ms^-1)

Ans. Since the speed of sound is lesser the speed of light, we can neglect the speed of light. So, distance of lightning point, d = v × t = (346) × (2) = 692 m

Name the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity – time graph

Ans. Displacement.

13. In which direction, Centripetal force acts when an object is in motion?

Ans. Towards the centre.

14. On which axis are time and distance generally taken in a distance- time graph?

Ans. On the X and Y-axis respectively.

15. Assertion (A): If a balanced force is applied on a wooden block it will move.

Reason (R): Unbalanced force changes the state of motion or rest while balanced force does not.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion

B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Ans. D) A is false, but R is true

Force applied on both the sides of wooden block in equal magnitude reinforces each other. Therefore, it does not bring about any change in the state of motion or rest of the object. Such types of forces are known as balanced forces.

16. Assertion (A): Muscle fibres are contractile in nature.

Reason (R): Cells of muscle tissue can shorten forcefully and again return to the relaxed state.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion

B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Ans. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion

Muscle fibres are said to be contractile in nature because cells of muscle tissue can shorten forcefully and then can again return to the relaxed state. This specialised property is known as contractility

Assertion (A): Permanent tissue is composed of mature cells

Reason (R): Meristematic tissue is a group of actively dividing cells

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion

B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Ans. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Meristematic tissues are made up of actively dividing cells, present in the growing areas of the plant body whereas Permanent tissue is a well differentiated plant tissue derived from meristematic tissue, which has lost its ability to divide.

17. Assertion (A): Alloys are homogenous mixture of metals.

Reason (R): Alloys cannot be separated into their components by physical methods.

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of the assertion

B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

C) A is true, but R is false

D) A is false, but R is true

Ans. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion

An alloy is homogenous mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents.

Q. No 18 – 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four sub parts in these questions.

18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v)

Study the substances given in the box and answer the following question:

i) Classify the above substances as homogenous and heterogeneous mixture

Ans. Homogeneous: Air, Filtered tea

Heterogeneous: Soil, Wood

ii) Mercury and calcium oxide is a pure substance (True or False)

Ans. True, Calcium oxide, and mercury are pure substances since their composition is known.

iii) Give an example of gas-gas homogenous mixture.

Ans. Air is an example of gas-gas homogenous mixture

iv) How can we say that sugar is a pure substance?

Ans. Sugar is a pure substance because it cannot be separated.

v) How can we say that milk is heterogeneous mixture?

Ans. Milk is heterogeneous mixture as milk can be separated by physical process into its components such as water, fats etc.

19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(1) to 19(v)

Hari and Shivam were playing on identical guitars whose strings were adjusted to give notes of the same pitch.

i) Will the quality of two notes be same? Give a reason for your answer.

Ans. No, because both the guitars emit the same fundamental note but the subsidiary notes will not be exactly same due to which the waveforms of the two guitars will be different, so they will differ in quality.

ii) Name the characteristic of sound that helps us to distinguish a note played on a sitar and a violin.

A) Quality or Timbre

B) Pitch

C) Frequency

D) Amplitude

Ans. A) Quality or Timbre

Timbre of sound enables us to distinguish two musical notes coming from different sources but having the same frequency and loudness.

iii) Define the term timbre

A) It is the property of musical sound used for differentiating two sounds

B) Distance travelled by a wave in one second

C) Number of oscillations per second

D) The way the brain interprets the frequency of an emitted sound is called its pitch

Ans. A) It is the property of musical sound used for differentiating two sounds

Timbre is a quality of musical tone to distinguish between two sounds when they are of the same frequency.

iv) Define the term pitch.

A) The degree of sensation of sound produced

B) Distance travelled by a wave in one second

C) Number of oscillations per second

D) The way the brain interprets the frequency of an emitted sound is called its pitch.

Ans. D) The way the brain interprets the frequency of an emitted sound is called its pitch.

The term that describes how the brain interprets the frequency of sound is called pitch.

v) Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Amplitude is the sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies.

B) Note is the sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies.

C) Frequency is the sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies.

D) Timbre is the sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies.

Ans. B) Note is the sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies.

The sound which is produced due to a mixture of several frequencies is called note. Atoms can neither be sub-divided, created nor destroyed.

20. Read the following and answer any 4 questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v).

Epidermis is the outermost covering of cells in plants. It is usually made up of a single layer of cells. On aerial parts of a plant epidermal cells often secrete a waxy, water resistant layer on their outer surface to prevent loss of water from plant. The cells of epidermis are present in a continuous layer without intercellular spaces. Small pores are present on the epidermis of leaf. These pores are called as stomata, which help in gaseous exchange and transpiration. As the plant grows older, a strip of secondary meristem replaces the epidermis of stem and forms a thick cork.

(i)________is the protective outer layer of clonally related cells covering all plant organs.

(A) Nucleus

(B) Epidermis

(D) Mitochondria

Ans. (B) Epidermis

The epidermis is the protective outer layer of clonally related cells covering all plant organs. It is composed of a number of specialised cell types which differentiate from the basal epidermal cell in adaptively significant frequencies and patterns.

(ii) Why do epidermal cells secrete waxy layer mainly?

(A) To boost loss of water from plant.

(B) To prevent loss of water from plant.

(D) To allow entry of pathogens

Ans. (B) To prevent loss of water from plant.

The epidermis and its waxy cuticle provide a protective barrier against mechanical injury, water loss, and infection.

(iii) What are the small pores on the surface of leaf called?

(A) Leaflets

(B) Thorns

(D) Lamina

Ans. (C) Stomata

Small pores present on the surface of leaves which help in exchange of gases are called stomata.

(iv) What is the function of stomata?

(A) They are useful for pollination.

(B) They do not allow the loss of water

(D) They protect the leaves.

Ans. (C) They help in gaseous exchange and transpiration.

It helps in the transpiration of water, i.e., the loss of excess water from the plant. Loss of water from the stomata creates an upward pull, i.e., suction pull, which helps in absorption of water from the roots. They help in exchange for gases.

(v) What are cork cells?

Ans. The cork cells are dead cells that secrete suberin. This secretion helps the cell wall to be impermeable to water and gases. This layer of dead cells also gives additional protection to the plants.

Section – B

21. When two bodies X and Y collide with each other, X exerts a force of 5 N on Y towards east direction. What is the force exerted by Y on X? Justify your answer stating the law.

Ans. Force exerted by Y on X is 5 N west direction or – 5 N This is because of Newton’s III law of motion: To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

A circular groove is provided in a saucer for placing the tea cup in it. Give reasons.

Ans. Circular groove is provided so that in case of sudden jerk the cup will not topple / fall from the saucer.

22. Name a connective tissue which is the hardest. What makes it so hard?

Ans. Bone is the hardest connective tissue, mainly the hard matrix composed of Ca and P compounds makes it hard.

23. State the significance of membrane biogenesis.

Ans. Membrane biogenesis involves the synthesis of cell membrane with the help of proteins and lipids. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum helps in the manufacture of fats or lipids important for cell function and building cell membrane.

Name the two types of endoplasmic reticulum. Write its main functions.

Ans. The two types of endoplasmic reticulum are Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER). RER has ribosomes attached to its surface. The ribosomes take part in protein synthesis.

SER does not have any ribosomes on it and secretes lipids. Some proteins and lipids synthesised in ER are used for producing new cellular parts, specially the cell membrane, by biogenesis

24. Define capture fishing and culture fishery. Why are prawns and oysters cultivated?

Ans. Capture fishing: Fishing from natural resources.

Culture fishery: Fish farming.

Oysters are cultivated for pearls.

Prawns are cultivated as a food item.

25. (a) J. Chadwick discovered a sub-atomic particle that has no charge and has mass nearly equal to that of a proton. Name the particle and give its location in the atom.

Ans. Particle is neutron.

Neutron is present in the nucleus of an atom.

(b) If ‘K’ and ‘L’ shells of an atom are completely filled, then what would be:

(i) The total number of electrons in the atom and

Ans. Total number of electrons = 10

(ii) Its valency?

Ans. Valency is zero.

26. Define valency. Classify the following cations on the basis of their valencies:

Ca⁺⁺, Cu⁺⁺, NH₄⁺, AI⁺⁺⁺

Ans. The combining power (or capacity) of an element to displace or combine with number of hydrogen atoms is known as its valency.

Ca⁺⁺ → divalent NH₄⁺ → monovalent

Cu⁺⁺ → divalent Al⁺⁺⁺ → trivalent

27. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time another ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/sec. Calculate where and when the two stones will meet. (Take g = 9.8 ms ^-2)

Ans. Let the ball ‘A’ be dropped from the tower.

Its initial velocity u₁ = 0 and acceleration

a₁ = + g = + 10 m/s².

The ball ‘B’ is projected upwards with velocity u₂ = 25 m/s and its acceleration is

a₂ = – g = –10 m/s².

Let the two balls meet at point ‘C’ at distance ‘y’ below from ‘A’.

Let the ball ‘A’ be dropped from the tower.

Ground

For ball A,

y = u₁t + 1/2 a₁t²

⇒ y = 1/2 × 10t² = 5t² …(i)

For ball B, (100 – y) = u₂t + 1/2 × a₂t²

⇒ (100 – y) = 25 × t + 1/2 × (– 10) × t²

⇒ 100 – y = 25t – 5t² …(ii)

Adding (i) and (ii) we have

100 = 25 t

∴ t = 4 s

Putting the value of t in (i),

y = 5 × 4² = 80 m

From the top of the tower or 20 m from the ground.

What happens to the magnitude of the force of gravitation between two objects if:

(i) mass of one of the objects is tripled?

(ii) distance between the objects is doubled?

(iii) mass of both objects is doubled?

Ans. The force between two objects is given by ‘Universal gravitation law’. It is numerically stated as,

F = G (m₁ m₂) /d²

(i) Mass of one object is tripled: F = G ((3m₁) m₂) /d²

F = 3G (m₁ m₂) /d²

Force will be tripled.

(ii) Distance between the objects is doubled:

F = G (m₁ m₂) /(2d)²

F = G (m₁ m₂) /4d²

F = 1/4G (m₁ m₂) /d²

Force will reduce to one-fourth of its previous value.

(iii) Masses of both objects are doubled:

F = G ((2m₁) (2m₂)) /d²

F = 4G (m₁ m₂) /d²

Force will be four times greater than its previous value.

28. With the help of a well-labelled diagram, explain how solid ammonium chloride converts directly to gaseous state on heating?

Ans. As we know that, ammonium chloride changes directly from solid to gaseous state on heating. So, in order to separate a mixture containing a volatile component from a non-volatile impurity (salt in this case), the sublimation process is used.

Take a mixture of ammonium chloride and salt. Crush it and put it in a china dish.

Put an inverted funnel over the china dish. Put a cotton plug on the stem of the funnel. Now heat slowly. It is observed that ammonium chloride sublimes i.e., gets converted directly into vapour and gets condensed on the inner core of funnel.

29. Complete the following flow chart:

Ans. (a) Squamous (b) Columnar (c) Unstriated (d) Lining of kidney tubules (e) Limbs (f) Heart

30. (i) A ball is allowed to roll down from an inclined plane. It reaches the foot of the plane and continues to roll on the ground. It stops after travelling some distance. Is this the violation of law of inertia?

Ans. No. It is not the violation of law of inertia. Law of inertia is obeyed only when no external force acts on a body. But in this case the friction due to the ground acts on the ball, so it comes to rest.

(ii) Give reasons for following.

Glass wares are wrapped in straw during their transportation.

Ans. To reduce the momentum transfer from the jerk to the glass.

31. Name three types of plastids found in plant cells and give one function of each.

Ans. Chloroplast: Involved in the photosynthesis in plants.

Chromoplast: Impart attractive colours to flowers and fruits.

Leucoplast: Stores starch, oil and protein granules.

32. Rahul and Manav each were given a mixture of iron fillings and sulphur powder. Rahul heated the mixture strongly and a new substance was formed. Write three points of difference between the two.

Ans. Rahul has a compound, Manav has a mixture.

33. A body can have zero average velocity but not zero average speed. Justify giving an example.

Ans. Average velocity = Net displacement/time taken

Average speed = Total distance/time taken

Net displacement can be zero but total distance cannot be zero.

e.g., body thrown vertically, comes down to the ground has zero displacement, but distance travelled is 2h where h is height reached by the body.

34. Mention three practices in which cattle farming is beneficial to mankind.

Ans. Benefits of cattle farming are:

(i) Milch cattle are used for production of milk.

(ii) Draught cattle are used for labour connected with agriculture.

(iii) It increases the overall income of the farmers and raises their standard of living.

(iv) Animal wastes are used for enriching soil.

(v) It provides employment to a large number of people.

(i) What is meant by lactation period?

Ans. Lactation period is the period of milk production after the birth of a calf.

(ii) Name two exotic cattle breeds with long lactation period.

Ans. Jersey, Brown Swiss.

(iii) To increase the milk production what kind of feed should be given to cattle?

Ans. To increase the milk production feed should include concentrates and roughage.

35. On the basis of number of cells, living organisms are classified as unicellular and multicellular.

(i) Name two unicellular organisms.

Ans. Amoeba and Euglena are unicellular organisms.

(ii) What is meant by division of labour in multicellular organisms?

Ans. Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ system → Organism

Multicellular organisms are made up of millions and trillions of cells. All these cells perform specific functions. All the cells specialised for performing similar functions are grouped together as tissues in the body. Hence, a particular function is carried out by a group of cells at a definite place in the body. Similarly, different functions are carried out by different groups of cells in an organism. This is known as division of labour in multicellular organisms.

(iii) Name one prokaryotic and one eukaryotic unicellular organism.

Ans. Prokaryotic – Bacteria, Eukaryotic – Amoeba

(iv) ‘Every multicellular organism has come from a single cell.’ Justify this statement.

Ans. Yes, every cell of the multicellular organism has come from a single cell. After fertilisation, single cell is formed. The zygote is actually a single cell. The zygote gives rise to all the other cells of our body.

(v) Write one common feature between an Amoeba and white blood cells of humans.

Ans. Both, Amoeba and white blood cells of humans do not have any fixed shape.

Draw a labelled diagram of mitochondria. Write the functions of mitochondria.

Ans.

Functions of mitochondria: The mitochondria are the main sites for cellular respiration, the process in which the cell converts sugars and oxygen into ATP. ATP is used by various bodies as a source of energy to perform functions.

36. (i) Can a homogeneous mixture have a variable composition? Justify giving an example.

Ans. Homogenous mixtures are the mixtures with uniform composition throughout like sugar solution or another.

(ii) What happens when:

(a) Dilute sulphuric acid is added to a mixture of iron filings and Sulphur powder.

Ans. Results in the formation of ferrous sulphate and evolution of hydrogen

Fe + H₂SO₄(aq) → FeSO₄ + H₂

(b) Dilute sulphuric acid is added to a mixture of iron filings and Sulphur powder heated to red hot followed by cooling.

Ans. Results in the formation of iron sulphide which reacts with sulphuric acid to form ferrous sulphate and release of hydrogen disulphide gas.

FeS + H₂SO₄(aq) → FeSO₄ + H₂S

37. (i) To estimate the height of a bridge over a river, a stone is dropped freely in the river from the bridge. The stone takes 2s to touch the water surface in the river. Calculate the height of the bridge from the water level.

Ans. The stone is being dropped freely from rest, so the initial velocity of the stone, u = 0. Again, the velocity of the stone is increasing as it comes down, so the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ is to be taken as positive.

Here, Initial velocity u = 0 m/s

Time taken t = 2.0 s

Let h be the height of the bridge

Apply 2nd equation of motion;

h = ut + 1/2 gt²

or, = [0 + ½ x 9.8 (2.0)²]m

or, = 19.6 m

(ii) Suppose a planet exists whose mass and radius both are half those of earth. Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of this planet.

Ans. g_e = GM/ R²

As the mass and radius of the planet are both half of that of Earth,

g_p = G [1/(1/2)]/ [1/(R/2)]²

g_p = 2 × g_e = 2 × 9.8

= 19.6 m/s²

Class IX – Science – Sample Paper – 1